A) Anterior pituitary MRI
B) Give levothyroxine
C) Start her on hydrocortisone
D) Rehydrate her with normal saline
E) Whole blood transfusion
Explanation: The correct answer is B because this patient has primary hypothyroidism- the low free T4 and high TSH indicates this. Because of this, the best course of action would be to give this patient replacement thyroid hormone in the form of levothyroxine
A- The cause of the hypothyroidism is more likely to be a problem with the thyroid gland rather than a pituitary tumour since there is a high TSH because of the lack of negative feedback from the low T4 (if there was low TSH then this would be more indicative of a pituitary tumour since the thyrotrophs aren't working properly)
C- This would be useful as a cortisol replacement if the patient had low cortisol, but cortisol is normal here
D- This would be useful if the patient had blood loss or primary adrenal failure but both her haemoglobin and cortisol are normal
E- Again, since her haemoglobin is normal she won't require a blood transfusion
A) He has no movement in his right leg
B) He can move his left leg completely fine
C) His feeling of pain and temperature in his left leg is impaired
D) His feeling of fine touch and vibration is impaired in his left leg
E) His feeling of pain and temperature in his right leg is impaired